SHOULD THE TRAIL AR FLAG FOR SOMETHING ACROSS THE FIELD?

Question:
I am the AR2 for a match which the CR is having assessment by an assessor. There is a situation which happens near the AR1, which the defender attempt to hit the attacker after a confrontation from the attacker. It was after the defender made a foul on the attacker.

The CR give a DFK for the attacker but he did not give Red Card for the defender who attempt to hit the attacker. It is very obvious that i think both the CR and the AR1 noticed that but CR did not give the card or AR2 did not remind the CR to give the card. It might be lack of knowledge of the law, or not courage enough.

As i am the AR2 on the other side of the field, i also do not have the courage to ask the referee over to remind him to give the card.

Can i ask him over to advise him on any decision which happens near the other AR?

If yes, can i ask him over if the attacker has already took the quick restart from that DFK, which is the ball is in play? Should i flag up? or should i just shout/call for him?

USSF answer (June 23, 2008):
Confining our answer strictly to the United States, we can say with confidence that the trail AR is much too far away from the location of whatever went on to attempt to intervene with advice on what the referee should do, particularly in view of the likelihood that the referee and/or the lead AR saw what happened.  If the trail AR feels that a mistake in judgment or courage was made, he could discuss it at the midgame break or at the end of the match . . . or listen in as the assessor discusses it.  The ultimate solution for the trail AR is to decide not to work with either of the other two officials again if he felt strongly about the matter.…

REF SENDS OFF WRONG PERSON

Question:
i saw this school game when the referee given the Blue Team number 9 a yellow in the 1st Half. During the 2nd Half, the Red Team number 9 committed a foul and the referee give him a yellow card, but referee thought that the number was given the 2nd yellow card, he gave him the red card. That direct free kick resulted as a goal. The referee realised the mistake after the coach complaining and ask the Red Team number 9 to continue with the play. The referee restart the ball with a centre kickoff.

I understand that the referee made the mistake for allowing the goal as the goal scoring team has more players on the field due to the referee mistake. In the case, the goal should be disallowed, but the restart will be that direct free kick again?

USSF answer (June 23, 2008):
Under the Laws of the Game, once the referee has restarted the game, he or she cannot change what happened before the restart. Therefore the Red number 9 remains sent off and his team must play short for the rest of the game. j The referee must include full details of the entire incident in the match report.

The goal stands and the restart is a kick-off, at least in the United States of America.…

DEALING WITH A PLAYER WHO “MIGHT” BE INJURED

Question:
The various scenarios about the Holland-Italy goal put forth on “Referee Week in Review” are very thorough and I hope every referee is aware of each of them. However I do have some questions on Scenario 5. It addresses the hypothetical that “the Italian defender is clearly injured and off the field of play,” and states:

“The referee makes a decision that the defender is seriously injured and cannot return to play by himself. Once the referee has acknowledged the seriousness of the injury, the player may not participate in the play and must not be considered to be in active play (at this point, he would not be considered in determining offside position and should not be considered in the equation as either the first or second last opponent). For purposes of Law 11, the defender is considered to be on the goal line for calculating offside position.

This player, however, may not return to play without the referee’s permission. Remember, the referee is instructed in Law 5 to stop the game only for serious injury.”

Under this scenario, the referee must “acknowledge the seriousness of the injury” and, once this is done, the player cannot participate in the play nor return to play without the referee’s permission. My question is how, in a situation as we had in Holland-Italy, the referee could inform the downed player or anyone else that this player no longer counted for any offside determination and also could not re-enter the field. If play continued upfield, the referee could not possibly get near enough to the downed player to issue any instructions and, even if he could, most players on the field likely would be unaware of the exact situation. How would the attackers know where to line up to stay onside? How would the downed defender, if he got up and was able to continue play, know that he was not allowed to re-enter the field?

Any clarification of what to do in this situation – both for the U15-18 level and for higher level games – would be much appreciated.

My instinct would be to either count the downed player or else decide his injury is severe enough to stop play.

USSF answer (June 23 2008):
In the case under discussion, the goal was scored within three seconds of Panucci leaving the field after being pushed by his teammate, Buffon. That was not enough time for the referee to make any determination as to whether or not an injury existed, much less to judge its seriousness.

Soccer is a contact sport. The referee is required to stop play if, in his or her opinion, a player is seriously injured. He or she does not stop play for a slight injury. Remember that referees will rarely stop play within three seconds. If it’s clearly a severe injury, such as to the head, then yes, there should be an immediate stoppage. However, referees will usually take more than three seconds to make a judgment on the extent of a player’s injury. Panucci was at most slightly injured, if at all. He got up after the goal and did not need any treatment. In addition, it makes little difference whether he fell on or off the field of play. He could have fallen in the goal area. He had been part of the defense and still was part of play, part of the move, part of the game, when the goal was scored.…

HANDLING THE BALL?

Question:
Defender in effort to clear the ball from the penalty area trips all on his own. He falls forwards and intentionally puts out his arms ahead of him to break his fall. His hand lands on the ball and pushes it out of the penalty area. Fair or foul? Is the intent to put his hands out sufficient to constitute intent to handle though he had no apparent intent to handle the ball. It is surely hand to ball, not ball to hand.

USSF answer (June 23, 2008):
A player attempting to break his fall must put his hands somewhere. If they simply happen to touch the ball that is already in the spot, no infringement of the Law has occurred. Do not make trouble for yourself by inventing fouls. It will only injure your credibility with the players.…

“CLEATS UP!”

Question:
Player’s foot slides over the top of the ball as his opponent tries to kick the ball.

Player’s cleat is over the ball while the opponent’s leg is swinging toward it. Contact is made, unavoidably by the opponents ankle to the first player’s cleat. Had the opponent’s timing been better the contact (cleats to ankle) would have still occurred.

I felt the first player was careless allowing his foot to go over the top of the ball and awarded a DFK against him. Nobody liked my call. The sore ankle team thought a caution / send-off was in order, the cleat over ball team went to the “I got the ball first”. I get 50/50 opinions on this situation. Can you give me any easy guidance?

USSF answer (June 18, 2008):
“Cleats up” means little if that is the only way the player can play the ball. What the referee must be concerned about is the nature and result of the play.

Referees should pay particular to the actual foul here, the “over the top” (of the ball) tackle. Unless the referee on the spot detects some malice in the play, this is a simple foul. However, if it is done other than through accident — and “accident” would appear to be the case here — it is the sending-off offense of serious foul play. The final decision must rest with the referee on the spot.…

PENALTY KICK OR ?

Question:
I was the center ref in a boys under-12 match. An orange defender and a white attacker were side by side chasing the ball and entered the PA at full speed. I was trailing the play and observed the white attacker take a shot. I followed the flight of the ball and seemingly at the moment it passed over the goal line, the orange defender took down the attacker with a hip. It did not appear intentional but more a consequence of the pair’s momentum. I called a PK, but later I considered the position of the ball at the time of the foul. If it had already passed the goal line, and was therefore out of play, would the correct procedure have been a misconduct on orange (yellow, not red since I didn’t consider it serious foul play) and restart with a goal kick?

USSF answer (June 16, 2008):
If the ball had left the field — only you can judge that, not us — then it was out of play. If the ball was out of play, then no penalty kick could be awarded. If the act was not deliberate, then nothing should have been done to punish the orange attacker or his team; no caution, no send-off, nothing. Restart with a goal kick. And if the ball had been out of play, it could not have been serious foul play, because players cannot contest a ball that is out of play.…

SERIOUS MISCONDUCT AT HALFTIME

Question:
The referee calls half-time in a game between reds and blues.
A blue player had been badly fouled just after the whistle. He then reacts and punches the red player in the face in the tunnel on the way to the changing room.
The players come out for half time, but the blue’s manager decides that he knows the player will get sent off and tries to substitute him before the restart.

Would the red player be booked for the late and bad challenge on the blue player?

Would the blue player get sent off before the sub can be made?

Would the substitute get sent off after it has been made?

Would the manager be sent off for unsporting conduct?

USSF answer (June 16, 2008):
The referee’s power to show cards and mete out punishment begins during the period immediately prior to the start of play and extends through the period of time immediately following the end of play, i. e., the end of the game, while players and substitutes are physically on the field but i the process of exiting. Any misconduct by a player that occurs during the halftime interval may be punished as if it had occurred when the ball was in play. To prevent misunderstandings, the referee should inform officials of both teams before the first period of play begins of any cautions or send-offs occurring prior to the start of the match; the same is true of any cautions or send-offs occurring during the halftime interval.

Under no circumstances could the act in question be considered a foul, as the ball was out of play. The act you describe would be considered violent conduct, a sending-off offense. The blue player should be sent off prior to the beginning of the second half. No substitution would be allowed. There would be no need to do anything to the manager, whose action would be common sense, not irresponsible behavior.…

LOCATION OF RESTART FOR DELIBERATE KICK TO ‘KEEPER

Question:
Yesterday, a very highly qualified referee, and that is a sincere statement, stated that the placement of the ball for the indirect free kick resulting from the goalie picking up a deliberate pass back was where the pass originated from.

In this example, not in the penalty area where the goalie picked the ball up, but some 30 yards up field near the halfway line.

His justification was that the foul did not occur when the goalie touched the ball but when the pass was made by the defender and that this was a somewhat “recent advice” to officials regarding “returning the ball to the origination of the foul” or some such notion that he believes was handed down by the rules interpreters.

Three certified officials, 2 of us that were playing in the match and the Match Ref, were later amicably discussing the decision and could agree.

I seem to only be able to find in the rules and advices that the indirect free kick is taken from the spot of infringement.

I believe the foul only occurs when the goalie picks up the ball and the Indirect free kick should always be in the penalty area, since if he touches it outside the area it would be a Direct free kick.

The applicable rule appears to be: Law 12

An indirect free kick is awarded to the opposing team if a goalkeeper, inside his own penalty area, commits any of the following four offenses:
• touches the ball with his hands after it has been deliberately kicked to him by a teammate

Correct? Yea or Nay?

USSF answer (June 16, 2008):
If so many officials are getting it wrong, perhaps it is fortunate that you sent in this question. You are, of course, correct and the “very highly qualified referee” is dead wrong.

It is not an infringement of the Law to kick the ball to the goalkeeper, as the goalkeeper has the right to play the ball with the feet at any legal opportunity. The Law spells out perfectly clearly when the offense takes place: When the goalkeeper “touches the ball with his hands,” etc. The restart takes place at that place, bearing in mind the special circumstances regarding free kicks in the goal area.…

‘KEEPER TAKES TOO MUCH TIME TO RELEASE THE BALL

Question:
In regards to Law 12, awarding an Indirect Free Kick to the opposing team when the goal keeper “. . . takes more than six seconds while controlling the ball with his hands before releasing it from his possession”, there was a situation on a recent adult match.

During “active play”, the ball is picked-up by the goal keeper legally within his penalty area, and upon realizing that he was taking a bit long in releasing the ball back into play, I announced “six-seconds, keeper”. The keeper then drops the ball in front of him and begins to move the ball with his feet while still inside his own penalty area. The keeper was still trying to find one of his teammates to pass the ball to, and I announced “six-seconds” once again.

The two announcements of the six-second warning happened in about a four-second window, and then the keeper kicked the ball outside the penalty area.

After the second verbal announcement I made, one of the goal keeper’s teammates told me that the keeper was not in violation of the six-second rule because the keeper had released the ball from his position, thus the ball now being in active-play.

I was not sure if the actions explained here that the keeper took to not be in violation of the six-second time-limit was valid, thus avoided being cautioned for wasting time.

Could you please elaborate if in this situation the goal keeper violated the six-second rule, or not?

USSF answer (June 16, 2008):
Technically the goalkeeper must release the ball within six seconds of having established full control, which would not count rising from the ground or stopping their run (if they had to run) to gain the ball. However, goalkeepers throughout the world routinely violate the six-second rule without punishment if the referee is convinced that the goalkeeper is making a best effort.

Your warning to the goalkeeper was correct, at least on the first offense. However, once the ‘keeper has released the ball from his or her hands, the ball is now available for anyone to play with their feet — including the goalkeeper.…

LEAVING THE FIELD OF PLAY

Question:
I was refereeing a U9 Boys game and the ball was in the penalty area. One defender decided to go around the back of the goal (leaving the field of play during play) to go to the other side of the field (rather than running across the field).

Is this a cautionable offense? During the game, I waited until the next stoppage and just told the players that they couldn’t go behind the goal and run across. It was U9, so I thought a simple explanation/warning would suffice.

However, I was reading the ATR and it said that “if a player in possession of or contesting for the ball passes over the touch line or the goal line without the ball to beat an opponent, he or she is not considered to have left the field of play without the permission of the referee.”

So, now I am wondering if my “warning” was correct. The player didn’t really leave the field to commit trickery or force an offside call or anything, but just to beat an opponent (or 3). I always thought that players could go off for a second or two during the course of play, and this seemed to be an extreme. Now I’m not 100% sure. I just wanted to do a quick “double check” here.

USSF answer (June 10, 2008):
The intent of the Law is that players remain on the field while the game is underway. Avoiding an opponent by running outside the field and around the goal is inventive, but would not qualify within the Spirit of the Game. The player should be cautioned for deliberately leaving the field of play without the referee’s permission.…